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FE2012.tex
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-------------------------------------------------------------------------------
\begin{problem}[Posted by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/67223}{Amir Hossein}]
Prove that the functional equations
\[f(x + y) = f(x) + f(y),\]
\[ \text{and} \qquad f(x + y + xy) = f(x) + f(y) + f(xy) \quad (x, y \in \mathbb R)\]
are equivalent.
\flushright \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/c4h366996}{(Link to AoPS)}
\end{problem}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/80482}{mathwarrior557}]
Not true. Let f(x) be x^2. Then f(4)=16 but f(2)+f(2)=2*4=8.
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/67223}{Amir Hossein}]
\begin{tcolorbox}Not true. Let f(x) be x^2. Then f(4)=16 but f(2)+f(2)=2*4=8.\end{tcolorbox}
Are you sure ?
If $f(x)=x^2$ then $f(x+y)=(x+y)^2=x^2+y^2+2xy$ and $f(x)=x^2, f(y)=y^2.$ But we had $f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)$, this implies $f(x) = x^2$ is not true for this function.
Remark. $f(x)=cx$ is the only solution of the functional equation $f(x+y)=f(x)+f(y)$ where $c$ is a constant real number.
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/81458}{3333}]
Assume f(a) + f(b) = f(a+b) but f(ab) + f(a) + f(b) =\= f(a+b+ab)
Then:
f(a+b+ab) =\= f(ab) + f(a+b)
lets define ab=k and a+b= n
f(k+n) =\= f(k) + f(n)
contradiction!
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/37259}{math154}]
\begin{bolded}Note:\end{bolded} A moderator should move this to the Olympiad Algebra forum.
We only prove the nontrivial direction. Let $P(x,y)\implies f(xy+x+y)=f(xy)+f(x)+f(y)$. First
\[P(x,0)\implies f(0)=0,\\
P(x,1)\implies f(2x+1)=2f(x)+1,\\
P(x,-1)\implies f(x)=-f(-x).\]Thus we find
\begin{align*}
[2f(x)+1]-[2f(x-1)+1]
&= f(2x+1)-f(2x-1)\\
&=f(2x+1)+f(-2x+1)\\
&=[2f(x)+f(1)]+[2f(-x)+f(1)]=2f(1),
\end{align*}so
\[f(x)-f(x-1)=f(1)\]and
\[2f(x)+f(1)=f(2x+1)=f(2x)+f(1)\implies f(2x)=2f(x).\]Now
\[P(x,y)+P(x,-y)\implies f(xy+x+y)+f(-xy+x-y)=2f(x)=f(2x),\]whence
\[f(2x)+f(xy-x+y)=f(xy+x+y).\]Letting $u=2x$ and $v=xy-x+y$ (so that we cover all $(u,v)$ with $x=u\/2$ and $y=(u+2v)\/(u+2)$ when $u\ne-2$),
\[f(u)+f(v)=f(u+v).\]If $u=-2$, then
\[f(-2)+f(v)=f(v)-f(2)=f(v)-2f(1)=f(v-2)=f(u+v),\]so we're done.
\end{solution}
*******************************************************************************
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------
\begin{problem}[Posted by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/87}{hxtung}]
Find all function $f:R \rightarrow R$ such that:
$f(f(x+y))=f(x+y)+f(x)f(y)-xy;\forall x,y \in R$.
\flushright \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/c6h6409}{(Link to AoPS)}
\end{problem}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/373}{matamata}]
First time posting, hope its right... :blush:
First, we show f(0) = 0
Since f(f(0)) = f(0) + f(0)*f(0) and f(f(0)) = f(0) + f(x)*f(-x) + x^2
f(0)*f(0) = f(x)*f(-x) + x^2 for all real x Let f(0) = c, so f(c) = c + c^2
c^2 = f(x)*f(-x) + x^2 let x = c, so c^2 = f(c)*f(-c) + c^2, so either f(c) = 0 or f(-c) = 0.
If f(-c) = 0, then f(f(-c)) = f(-c) + f(0)*f(-c) so f(0) = 0
If f(c) = 0, c^2 +c = 0 so c = 0 or c = -1.
If c = -1, then f(f(x)) = f(x) + f(x)*f(0) = 0 So f(x) = 0 for all x in f's range
But then 0 must be f's range, since f(some element) = 0, so f(0) = 0, and we have a contradiction.
Since f(0) = 0
f(f(x)) = f(x) but f(x) = x for all reals only in f's range
x+y = f(x+y) + f(x)*f(y) -xy so if y = 0, f(x) = x, for all real x...
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/183}{Valiowk}]
\begin{tcolorbox}x+y = f(x+y) + f(x)*f(y) -xy so if y = 0, f(x) = x, for all real x...\end{tcolorbox}
I'm sorry, but I don't understand how you get this line.
Since $f(f(x)) = f(x) \forall x$ we have $f(x)f(y) = xy$. Now the range of $f$ cannot be $\{0\}$ only, hence take any $x \neq 0$ in the range of $f$. Then we have $xy = f(x)f(y) = xf(y)$ and hence $f(x) = x \forall x$.
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/373}{matamata}]
ack! I knew I'd do something stupid like that...
What you did is how I solved it on paper, but while typing it up, I thought that "f(f(x)) = f(x) implies f(f(x+y)) = x+y, it's even simpler!", sorry :blush:
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/143543}{dudeldai}]
functional equations are a new topic for me ... so i have a question
it's quite easy to proove that f has to be injective.
now we let f(x+y)=-f(x)*f(y)
and plugging in the initiial equation we get f(-f(x)*f(y))=-xy.
since f is injective -->f(x)*f(y)=x*y
and finally for x=y , f(x)^2=x^2 , f(x)=x.
is it possible ? please help me i'm tryn to get better in this stuff .
thx
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/29428}{pco}]
\begin{tcolorbox}functional equations are a new topic for me ... so i have a question
it's quite easy to proove that f has to be injective.
now we let f(x+y)=-f(x)*f(y)
and plugging in the initiial equation we get f(-f(x)*f(y))=-xy.
since f is injective -->f(x)*f(y)=x*y
and finally for x=y , f(x)^2=x^2 , f(x)=x.
is it possible ? please help me i'm tryn to get better in this stuff .
thx\end{tcolorbox}
1) Show us your proof that $f(x)$ is injective. It's true but it does not seem so simple (I had to go up to the solution $f(x)=x$ to prove injectivity)
2) what is the meaning of "let $f(x+y)=-f(x)*f(y)$" ?
If you mean that $f(x+y)=-f(x)f(y)$ $\forall x,y$, then it's false
If you mean that you choose some specific values $x,y$ such that $f(x+y)=-f(x)f(y)$, then :
2.1. You must we aware that you did not prove that such $x,y$ exist
2.2. You must be aware that your conclusions will only be available for these specific values of $x,y$ and will not be general conclusions
3) How can you conclude from $f(-f(x)f(y))=-xy$ that $f(x)f(y)=xy$ ????? This is absolutely not a conclusion of the [not-yet-proved] injectivity.
Injection allow you to conclude from $f(a)=f(b)$ that $a=b$. That's all.
4) If you succeed to prove that $f^2(x)=x^2$, you can not immediately conclude $f(x)=x$. The only thing you could then conclude is that :
$\forall x$, either $f(x)=x$, either $f(x)=-x$
For example, the function $f(x)=(-1)^{\lfloor 32\sin x\rfloor}x$ is such that $f^2(x)=x^2$ $\forall x$
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/143543}{dudeldai}]
thx for helping me! i still have a question.
So in point 2) you want to say that if i want to substitute a value for f
for example in my case f(x+y)=f(x)f(y)(i see now that it is totaly wrong) i have to show that it is true for
every x,y to make general conlcusions and finally find all possible functions or can i even find some specific
x,y to find general conclusions?I mean when we try to find out more about a function most of the time we first try to make specific conclusions like f(1) and f(0) ecc.. but with these we can still make genral conclusions in the end..so my question : if i find an equation like f(x+y)=f(x)f(y) and i prove it for some specific x,y .. plugging it in the initial equation can i make general conclusions ???
i made some strange conclusions yesterday i was really tired .. sorry
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/29428}{pco}]
If you choose $x,y$ with a given constraint, then your conclusion is valid only for those $x,y$.
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/29876}{ozgurkircak}]
\begin{tcolorbox}Find all function $f:R \rightarrow R$ such that:
$f(f(x+y))=f(x+y)+f(x)f(y)-xy;\forall x,y \in R$.\end{tcolorbox}
Here is my solution: Replacing $y=0$ we get $f(f(x))=f(x)[1+f(0)]$ So for all $t \in Range$ we have $f(t)=ct$ where $c=1+f(0).$
The original equation forces c to be 1. So for all $t \in Range$ we have $f(t)=t.$
Now the original equation becomes
$f(x+y)=f(x+y)+f(x)f(y)-xy \Longrightarrow f(x)f(y)=xy$ fixing y for a value s.t $f(y) \neq 0$ (we have such a point since $f \equiv 0$ is not a solution) we get $f(x)=ax$ and original equation gives $a=1.$
So $f(x)=x$ for all $x \in \mathbb{R}.$
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/29428}{pco}]
\begin{tcolorbox}Here is my solution: Replacing $y=0$ we get $f(f(x))=f(x)[1+f(0)]$ So for all $t \in Range$ we have $f(t)=ct$ where $c=1+f(0).$
The original equation forces c to be 1. \end{tcolorbox}
Why this last sentence ?
Pluging $f(x)=cx$ $\forall x\in f(\mathbb R)$ in original equation, we get $(c-1)f(x+y)=f(x)f(y)-xy$ $\forall x,y\in\mathbb R$ and this does not allow to conclude $c=1$
Replacing $x,y$ by $f(x),f(y)$ in the above equation, we get $(c-1)f(f(x)+f(y))=(c^2-1)f(x)f(y)$ but this still does not allow to conclude $c=1$
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/29428}{pco}]
\begin{tcolorbox}Find all function $f:R \rightarrow R$ such that:
$f(f(x+y))=f(x+y)+f(x)f(y)-xy;\forall x,y \in R$.\end{tcolorbox}
Let $P(x,y)$ be the assertion $f(f(x+y))=f(x+y)+f(x)f(y)-xy$
(a) : $P(1,1)$ $\implies$ $f(f(2))=f(2)+f(1)^2-1$
(b) : $P(2,0)$ $\implies$ $f(f(2))=f(2)+f(2)f(0$
(c) : $P(x,1)$ $\implies$ $f(f(x+1))=f(x+1)+f(x)f(1)-x$
(d) : $P(x,2)$ $\implies$ $f(f(x+2))=f(x+2)+f(x)f(2)-2x$
(e) : $P(x+1,0)$ $\implies$ $f(f(x+1))=f(x+1)+f(x+1)f(0)$
(f) : $P(x+1,1)$ $\implies$ $f(f(x+2))=f(x+2)+f(x+1)f(1)-x-1$
(a)$\times f(x)-$(b)$\times f(x)-$(c)$\times f(1)+$(d)$\times f(0)+$(e)$\times f(1)-$(f)$\times f(0)$ $\implies$ $f(x)=x(f(1)-f(0))+f(0)$
Plugging then back $f(x)=ax+b$ in original equation, we get $a=1$ and $b=0$ and so the unique solution $\boxed{f(x)=x}$
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/29876}{ozgurkircak}]
thank you very much for your remark.
I now see that I made a mistake by taking granted if $a, b \in Range$ then $a+b \in Range$ which I didn't prove. And by considering the equation like a polynomial equation in $f(x)$ and $f(y).$
To complete my solution I need to prove two things:
$a,b \in Range \Longrightarrow a+b \in Range$ also there are an infinite number of elements in the Range.
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/152203}{borntobeweild}]
A different approach:
Let $P(x,y)$ be the assertion.
$P(0,0) \implies f(f(0))=f(0)+f(0)^2$
$P(f(0),-f(0)) \implies f(f(0))=f(0)+f(f(0))f(-f(0))+f(0)^2$
Subtracting the first equation from the second gives:
$f(f(0))f(-f(0))=0$
Case $1$: $f(-f(0))=0$:
$P(0,-f(0)) \implies f(0)=0$
Case $2$: $f(f(0))=0$:
$P(0,f(0)) \implies f(0)=0$
Now as we have in general that $f(0)=0$, we take:
$P(x,0) \implies f(f(x))=f(x) \forall x$, which makes the original equation:
$f(x)f(y)=xy$
Let $y=x$, to get:
$f(x)^2=x^2$, so $\forall x$, either $f(x)=x$ or $f(x)=-x$.
Let $f(c)=-c$ for some $c$, and take:
$P(c,0) \implies c=-c$, so $c=0$
Therefore, $f(x)=x$
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/176302}{Andrax}]
I know i'm reviving an old thread but this is my first post , please proceed to look at this
plugging x,-x we get f(x)f(-x)=f(0)^2 -x^2
f(x)f(-x)=(f(0)-x)(f(0)+x)
so one of the solutions if f(x)=f(0)-x and f(-x)=f(0)+x , clearly f(x)=x satisfies this so it is a solution
is this considered one of the "solutions" and if this is an exercise worth 5 points how much points would i get with this trick?
thanks in advance
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/199494}{IMI-Mathboy}]
\[P(x;o) \Rightarrow f(f(x))=f(x)(c+1) \text{here c=f(o)assume that} c\neq o then from original equation we have: f(x+y)c=f(x)f(y)-xy (1) in(1) P(c;-c) \Rightarrow f(a)=o here a={c,-c} in (1) P(x;a) \Rightarrow f(x+a)=-frac{a}{c}x 1) case a=c \Rightarrow f(x)=-x-a here x\toa -2a=f(a)=o contradiction to our assume 2)case a=-c \Rightarrow f(x)=x-a checking it in original equation we get a=o this is also contradiction to our assume.So we have c=o from(1) we get f(x)f(y)=xy y\tob that f(b)%Error. "neqo" is a bad command.
\Rightarrow f(x)=kx while checking we get k=1 So the solution is f(x)=x .\]
\end{solution}
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\begin{problem}[Posted by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/3749}{pigfly}]
Find all function $ f: \mathbb R\to \mathbb R$ satisfying the condition:
\[ f(f(x - y)) = f(x)\cdot f(y) - f(x) + f(y) - xy
\]
\flushright \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/c6h29669}{(Link to AoPS)}
\end{problem}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/581}{Anh Cuong}]
Should it be:
[tex] f(f(x-y))=f(x) \cdot f(y)-f(x)+f(y)-xy [\/tex] ? :)
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/6984}{Kapi}]
\begin{tcolorbox}Should it be:
[tex] f(f(x-y))=f(x) \cdot f(y)-f(x)+f(y)-xy [\/tex] ? :)\end{tcolorbox}
i have sloved this problem :my result: $f(x)=-x$ But my solution is long and not nice :( ; i will try to find another solution :)
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/6077}{nhat}]
i have the solution for this problem
the first one:give$f(0)$=a;a in real
give $x=y=0$ then we have $f(a)=a^2$
give x=y then we have $f(a)=f(x)^2-x^2$ for all x in real
so we give $x=a$ then we have $2*a^2=a^4$ so $x=0$ or $x=sqrt(2)$ or $x=-sqrt(2)$
if $a=sqrt2$ then we easy to prove that $f(a^2)=a^3-a^2+a$ so give $x =a^2$ then we have the contradition
it's similar for the case $a=-sqrt(2)$(contradition) so $a=0$ hence $f(x)=x$ or $f(x)=-x$
we esay to prove that two solution doesn't take place atthe same time so $f(x)=x$ fo all x in real or $f(x)=-x$ for all x in real are the solution
but $f(x)=x4 isn't the solution
then we have $f(x)=-x$ for all x in real is the function satisfy the condition :D :D :D
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/7410}{TienVinh}]
If a <sup>2<\/sup> =2 we choose y =0 then we can see it's wrong.
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/8390}{rustam}]
that was an easy problem .
Each guy here who is prepairing to IMO maneged it.
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/32886}{dgreenb801}]
Let $ y = x$, then we find $ f(f(0)) = [f(x)]^2 - x^2$. Let $ f(f(0)) = C$, then $ f(x) = \pm \sqrt {x^2 + C}$. Of course, it cannot be both since f is a function, sometimes it will be plus and sometimes it will be minus.
Let $ f(0) = d$. Letting $ y = 0$, we have
$ f(f(x)) = df(x) - d - f(x)$
Letting $ x = 0$ and $ y = - x$, we have
$ f(f(x)) = df( - x) - d + f( - x)$
Let $ g = \frac {d - 1}{d + 1}$. Setting both expressions for $ f(f(x))$ equal, we find $ gf(x) = f( - x)$. But since $ f(x) = \pm \sqrt {x^2 + C}$, we find g must be either 1 or -1. $ g = 1$ gives no possible value for d, so $ g = - 1$ and $ d = 0$. So $ d=f(0)=0$ and $ C=f(f(0))=0$. So f(x)= either x or -x.
But now, how do we prove $ f(x)$ can't be x on some values and -x on others? Nhat said it is easy, but never showed it.
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/143628}{MANMAID}]
The full solution is too big. So I write some of these lines:
I get $f(f(0))=f(0)^2$,$f(x)+f(-x)=2f(0)$.
After that I got $f(x)^2=x^2+f(0)^2$ ,then $f(x)^2-f(-x)^2=0$, if $f(0)=0$,then we get $f(x)^2=x^2\Rightarrow{f(x)=\pm{x}}$
$f(x)=x$,this do not satisfy the eq. ,$f(x)=-x$ satisfies the eq. .
If $f(x)=f(-x)$, & ,$f(0)\ne{0}$, then we can get $f(x)=\pm{1}$, which does not satisfy the main eq. Hence there does not exist any such $f$.
Hence , $f(x)=-x$
:Edited:
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/29428}{pco}]
\begin{tcolorbox}Find all function $ f: \mathbb R\to \mathbb R$ satisfying the condition:
\[ f(f(x - y)) = f(x)\cdot f(y) - f(x) + f(y) - xy
\]\end{tcolorbox}
I'm always very impressed by those users claiming "I have the solution but it's too long to be posted here" or "this a very easy problem that everbody managed and I'll not post the solution here
I'm even more impressed when the claim is wrong (so that we cant point the flaw in the proof of the poster since he\/she hides it).
Here is a full solution of this rather simple equation :
Let $P(x,y)$ be the assertion $f(f(x-y))=f(x)f(y)-f(x)+f(y)-xy$
1) $f(x)^2=x^2$ $\forall x$
=============
Subtracting $P(0,0)$ from $P(x,x)$, we get $f(x)^2=x^2+f(0)^2$
An immediate consequence is that $f(-x)=\pm f(x)$ $\forall x$
Let then $x\ne 0$ : $f(f(x))=\pm f(f(-x))$ and :
If $f(f(x))=f(f(-x))$, subtracting $P(0,x)$ from $P(x,0)$ implies $f(x)=f(0)$ and so $f(x)^2=f(0)^2$ and so $x=0$, impossible.
So $f(f(x))=-f(f(-x))$ and then adding $P(0,x)$ to $P(x,0)$ implies $f(x)f(0)=0$ and so $f(0)=0$, else $f(x)=0$ $\forall x\ne 0$, which is not a solution.
Q.E.D
2) $f(x)=-x$ $\forall x>0$
================
We got from 1) above that $\forall x$, either $f(x)=x$, either $f(x)=-x$
Suppose now $\exists a,b>0$ such that $f(a)=a$ and $f(b)=-b$ :
$f(f(a-b))=\pm f(f(b-a))$ and :
If $f(f(a-b))=f(f(b-a))$, subtracting $P(b,a)$ from $P(a,b)$ implies $a=-b$ , impossible since $a,b>0$
So $f(f(a-b))=-f(f(b-a))$ and then adding $P(b,a)$ to $P(a,b)$ implies $ab=0$, impossible since $a,b>0$
So : either $f(x)=x$ $\forall x>0$, either $f(x)=-x$ $\forall x>0$
If $f(x)=x$ $\forall x>0$, $P(x,y)$ with $x>y>0$ implies contradiction.
So $f(x)=-x$ $\forall x>0$
Q.E.D.
3) $f(x)=-x$ $\forall x$
============
We got from 1) above that $\forall x$, either $f(x)=x$, either $f(x)=-x$
Suppose now $\exists a,b<0$ such that $f(a)=a$ and $f(b)=-b$ :
$f(f(a-b))=\pm f(f(b-a))$ and :
If $f(f(a-b))=f(f(b-a))$, subtracting $P(b,a)$ from $P(a,b)$ implies $a=-b$ , impossible since $a,b<0$
So $f(f(a-b))=-f(f(b-a))$ and then adding $P(b,a)$ to $P(a,b)$ implies $ab=0$, impossible since $a,b<0$
So : either $f(x)=x$ $\forall x<0$, either $f(x)=-x$ $\forall x<0$ and so :
Either $f(x)=-x$ $\forall x$, which indeed is a solution
Either $f(x)=-|x|$ $\forall x$ which is not a solution
Q.E.D.
Hence the unique solution $\boxed{f(x)=-x}$ $\forall x$
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/141397}{subham1729}]
Denote $f(0) = k$. Substituting $x = y = 0$ into the given equation, we get $f(k) = k^2 (1)$
Then substituting $x = y$ and taking into account $(1)$, we have $f(k) =[f(x)]^2 - x^2$, or
$[f(x)]^2 = x^2 + k^2 (2)$ This shows that $[f(-x)]^2 = [f(x)]^2$, or
$[f(x) + f(-x)] .[f(x) - f(-x)] = 0$, . (3) Assume that there is a= 0 such that $f(a) = f(-a)$. Then substituting
$y = 0$ into the given equation one gets $f(f(x)) = kf(x) - f(x) - k$, ,and substituting $x = 0, y = -x$ one obtains $f(f(x)) = kf(-x) + f(-x) -k,$ which together yields $k[f(-x) -f(x)] + f(-x) + f(x) = 2k, (4)$ from which, by substituting $x = a$, we have $f(a) = k. (5)$ On the other hand, from (2) it follows that if $f(x) = f(y)$ then $x^2 = y^2$.Then by (5), the equality $f(a) = k = f(0)$ shows that $a = 0$, which contradicts to $a= 0$. Thus $f(-x) = f(x)$ for all $x = 0$. Then (3) gives $k[f(x)-1] = 0$, which implies that $k = 0$ (otherwise $f(x) = 1$, contradicts to $f(-1) = f(1))$.So we arrive to $[f(x)]^2 = x^2.$ Now assume that there is $a = 0$ such that $f(a) = a$. Then $a =f(a) = -f(f(a)) = -f(a) =-a$, which implies that $a = 0$. This is impossible, as
$a=0$. Hence, $f(x) = x$, Then from $[f(x)]^2 = x^2$ it follows that $f(x) = -x,$ Conversely, by direct verification we see that this solution satisfies the requirement of the problem. Thus the answer is $f(x) = -x.$
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/143628}{MANMAID}]
\begin{tcolorbox}I'm always very impressed by those users claiming "I have the solution but it's too long to be posted here" or "this a very easy problem that everbody managed and I'll not post the solution here
I'm even more impressed when the claim is wrong (so that we cant point the flaw in the proof of the poster since he\/she hides it).\end{tcolorbox}
You are right , I overlooked it and I edited it.
Though you are right that I did not post the full solution, these lines that I have wrote is enough, and also my solution is smaller than yours.
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/29428}{pco}]
\begin{tcolorbox} You are right , I overlooked it and I edited it.
Though you are right that I did not post the full solution, these lines that I have wrote is enough, and also my solution is smaller than yours.\end{tcolorbox}
Congrats ! You are very smart
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/13967}{Karth}]
Another solution:
Setting $x=y$, we get $f(f(0)) = f(x)^2 - x^2 \Rightarrow f(x) = \sqrt{x^2 + C_1}$ or $f(x) = -sqrt{x^2 + C_1}$, where $C_1 = f(f(0))$. Note that $C_1 = 0.$ Indeed, let $C_1 > 0.$ Note that $x = 0 \Rightarrow f(f(x)) = C_2 f(x) - f(x) + C_2$, where $C_2 = f(0)$. Further, $y = 0 \Rightarrow f(f(-y)) = C_2 f(y) + f(y) - C_2$. Since $C_1 > 0$, $f$ is an even function, so we have that $f(x) = f(-x) \Rightarrow f(f(x)) = f(f(-x)) \Rightarrow C_2 f(x) - f(x) + C_2 = C_2 f(x) + f(x) - C_2 \Rightarrow f(x) = f(0) = 0$, by simple substitution. This is a contradiction, since $|C_1| > 0 \Rightarrow f(x) \neq 0$. Substituting $C_1 = 0$, we get that $f(x) = x$, $f(x) = -x$, $f(x) = |x|$, or $f(x) = -|x|$. We can easily check that of these, only $f(x) = -x$ works. $\box$
\end{solution}
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\begin{problem}[Posted by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/1991}{orl}]
Let $ \mathbb{N}_0$ denote the set of nonnegative integers. Find all functions $ f$ from $ \mathbb{N}_0$ to itself such that
\[ f(m + f(n)) = f(f(m)) + f(n)\qquad \text{for all} \; m, n \in \mathbb{N}_0.
\]
\flushright \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/c6h60429}{(Link to AoPS)}
\end{problem}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/3687}{aodeath}]
Its not hard to guess that
$f(x)=x$
works well. Actually, I just don't know if it's the only possible solution for that. It's quite reasonable to observe that an aplication of f sends 0 into itself. And by taking m=0, we opberve that
$f(f(n))=f(n), \forall n$
So i can garantee that there are more fixed points...don't know if that's a nice observation, because I can't conclude much about...but i wanted to discuss about this problem
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/26}{grobber}]
There are definitely more solutions. I don't have the time to write a detailed solution, and it's not that hard anyway, but I believe the solutions can be described like this:
Take some $r\in\mathbb N_0$, let $f$ map $1,2,\ldots,r-1$ onto some multiples of $r$ arbitrarily, put $f(kr)=kr,\ \forall k\in\mathbb N_0$, and extend the function to the other naturals by setting $f(u+r)=f(u)+r,\ \forall u\in\mathbb N_0$.
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/13603}{e.lopes}]
Kalva Solution:
Setting $m = n = 0$, the given relation becomes: $f(f(0)) = f(f(0)) + f(0)$. Hence f(0) = 0. Hence also $f(f(0)) = 0$. Setting $m = 0$, now gives $f(f(n)) = f(n)$, so we may write the original relation as $f(m + f(n)) = f(m) + f(n)$.
So $f(n)$ is a fixed point. Let $k$ be the smallest non-zero fixed point. If $k$ does not exist, then $f(n)$ is zero for all $n$, which is a possible solution. If $k$ does exist, then an easy induction shows that $f(qk) = qk$ for all non-negative integers $q$. Now if $n$ is another fixed point, write $n = kq + r$, with $0$ ≤ $r$ < $k$.
Then $f(n) = f(r + f(kq)) = f(r) + f(kq) = kq + f(r)$. Hence $f(r) = r$, so $r$ must be zero. Hence the fixed points are precisely the multiples of $k$.
But $f(n)$ is a fixed point for any $n$, so $f(n)$ is a multiple of $k$ for any $n$.
Let us take $n_1, n_2, ... , n_{k-1}$ to be arbitrary non-negative integers and set $n_0 = 0$.
Then the most general function satisfying the conditions we have established so far is:
$f(qk + r) = qk + n_rk$ for $0$ ≤$r$ < $k$.
We can check that this satisfies the functional equation.
Let $m = ak + r$, $n = bk + s$, with $0$ ≤ $r, s$ < $k$.
Then $f(f(m)) = f(m) = ak + n_rk$, and $f(n) = bk + n_sk$,
so $f(m + f(n)) = ak + bk + n_rk + n_sk$, and $f(f(m)) + f(n) = ak + bk + n_rk + n_sk$.
So this is a solution and hence the most general solution.
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/10277}{Philip_Leszczynski}]
I'm not sure about this... but it seems right.
[hide]
Put $m,n=0: f(f(0)) = f(f(0)) + f(0)$, so $f(0) = 0$.
Put $m=0: f(f(n)) = f(f(0)) + f(n)$, so $f(f(n)) = f(n)$.
So the original becomes $f(m+f(n)) = f(m) + f(n)$.
If we plug in $f(m)$ for $m$, we have $f(f(m)+f(n)) = f(f(m)) + f(n) = f(m) + f(n)$.
So if we have $m=n$, then $f(2f(m)) = 2f(m)$.
Since $2f(m)$ must be in the range of $f$ for all $m$, we can use a simple induction on $k$ to show that for all $k,m \in \mathbb{N}_0$, $f(kf(m)) = kf(m)$.
Let $f(1)=c$. Then $f(kf(1)) = f(kc) = kf(1) = kc$.
So $f(x)=cx$, where $c=f(1)$.
But then $f(f(x)) = cf(x) = c^2x > cx$. Contradiction if $c \ge 2$ (since $f(f(x)) = f(x)$)
So $c=0,1$.
But if $c=1$, then $f(x)=x$, and we obviously have a contradiction in the original. So $c=0$, and $f(x)=0$ for all x.
[\/hide]
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/13603}{e.lopes}]
\begin{tcolorbox}I'm not sure about this... but it seems right.
[hide]
Put $m,n=0: f(f(0)) = f(f(0)) + f(0)$, so $f(0) = 0$.
Put $m=0: f(f(n)) = f(f(0)) + f(n)$, so $f(f(n)) = f(n)$.
So the original becomes $f(m+f(n)) = f(m) + f(n)$.
If we plug in $f(m)$ for $m$, we have $f(f(m)+f(n)) = f(f(m)) + f(n) = f(m) + f(n)$.
So if we have $m=n$, then $f(2f(m)) = 2f(m)$.
Since $2f(m)$ must be in the range of $f$ for all $m$, we can use a simple induction on $k$ to show that for all $k,m \in \mathbb{N}_0$, $f(kf(m)) = kf(m)$.
Let $f(1)=c$. Then $f(kf(1)) = f(kc) = kf(1) = kc$.
So $f(x)=cx$, where $c=f(1)$.
But then $f(f(x)) = cf(x) = c^2x > cx$. Contradiction if $c \ge 2$ (since $f(f(x)) = f(x)$)
So $c=0,1$.
But if $c=1$, then $f(x)=x$, and we obviously have a contradiction in the original. So $c=0$, and $f(x)=0$ for all x.
[\/hide]\end{tcolorbox}
wrong solution. ;)
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/3687}{aodeath}]
\begin{tcolorbox}
But then $f(f(x)) = cf(x) = c^2x > cx$. Contradiction if $c \ge 2$ (since $f(f(x)) = f(x)$)
So $c=0,1$.
But if $c=1$, then $f(x)=x$, and we obviously have a contradiction in the original. So $c=0$, and $f(x)=0$ for all x.
\end{tcolorbox}
This part here seems very strange to me... :huh:
First because you weren't so clear about your contradiction [even though you didn't assume anything to contradict!]...second because $f(x)=x, \forall x\in \mathbb{N}_0$ works very well =]
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/72819}{Dijkschneier}]
\begin{tcolorbox}
We can check that this satisfies the functional equation.
Let $m = ak + r$, $n = bk + s$, with $0$ ≤ $r, s$ < $k$.
Then $f(f(m)) = f(m) = ak + n_rk$, and $f(n) = bk + n_sk$,
so $f(m + f(n)) = ak + bk + n_rk + n_sk$, and $f(f(m)) + f(n) = ak + bk + n_rk + n_sk$.
So this is a solution and hence the most general solution.\end{tcolorbox}
When you are verifying, I think you should not make the assumption $f(f(m))=f(m)$.
If $f(qk+r)=qk + n_r k$, how do you prove that $f(f(m))=f(m)$ ?
Suppose otherwise that $f(f(m))=f(m)$. Then $qk+n_r k = f(qk+r) = f(f(qk+r))=f(qk+n_r k)=qk + n_{n_r k}k$, so $n_r = n_{n_r k}$ : but why should they be equal ?
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/97340}{quantumbyte}]
Can't we conclude from f(f(n))=f(n), that f(n)=n.
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/86504}{avatarofakato}]
\begin{tcolorbox}Can't we conclude from f(f(n))=f(n), that f(n)=n.\end{tcolorbox}
Actually we can, but first we must show that $f$ is injective.
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/97340}{quantumbyte}]
Can you explain to me how we could do that?
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/86504}{avatarofakato}]
I don't think so. I have written this statement for the general case.
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/57654}{anchenyao}]
I hope I am not reviving anything.
[hide="My Solution"]
First, set $m=n=0$. Thus, we have
$f(f(0))=f(f(0))+f(0)$.
Thus $f(0)=0$
Then, set $m=0$.
$f(f(n))=f(n)$
Next, let $m=n=f(b)$
$f(2f(b))=f(f(b))+f(b)$
$f(2f(b))=2f(b)$
Substituting $n=2f(b)$ and $m=f(b)$, we have
$f(3f(b))=f(2f(b))+f(f(b))=2f(b)+f(b)=3f(b)$.
By induction, we realize that
$f(cf(b))=cf(b)=f(cn)=cf(n)$
Thus, if $n$ is in the range of $f(x)$, all integers of the form $cn$ for a positive integer $c$ is also in the range of $f(x)$. Thus, the range of $f(x)$ encompasses all integers.
From this, we get
$f(f(n))=f(n)$
Letting $f(n)=k$,
$\fbox{f(k)=k}$.
This works when $f(b)\neq 0$, so the other solution is $\fbox{f(b)=0}$.[\/hide]
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/96840}{ACCCGS8}]
This solution does not work.
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/140813}{MBGO}]
Here's a new solution(i guess) by me :
suppose function is not constant(or else f=0) :
it is not hard to get f(0)=0, f(kf(n))=kf(n) (*),f(f(n))=f(n) (**), so if there exists some natural (or zero) i so that f(i)=1,then we will get
f(k)=k by (*), suppose the least \begin{bolded}natural \end{bolded}number which the function could produce is p, then by (*) we have f(kp)=kp, where k is a natural number, it's not hard to find that f(m+f(n))=f(f(m)) + f(n) is equal to f(m+f(n))=f(m)+f(n) by (**),plugging m=i<p,n=kp , we will get f(kp+i)=kp +f(i) ,so :
set n=kp+i,i<p,
f(f(n)=f(n) so f(kp+f(i))=kp+f(i),by the assumption of the minimality of function, we get f(i)=sp+j ,0<j<p
so f(kp+sp+j)=kp+sp+f(j)=kp+sp+j
so f(j)=j, contradiction with minimality,so in this case we get the least minimality is equal to 1 and so f(k)=k for all naturals,and it's Done.
.....
if j=0,then f(i)=sp for some arbitrary natural(or zero) s....the rest is Done.
\begin{italicized}typos fixed.\end{italicized}
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/105268}{McItran}]
Is it true?
Let $m=n=0$. Then $f(0+f(0))=f(f(0))=f(f(0))+f(0)$. Then $f(0)=0$. Then put in $m=0$. We get $f(f(n))=f(f(0))+f(n)=f(n). Then $f(m+f(n))=f(m)+f(n). Assume that $a, b, c$ are arbitrary integer nonnegative numbers. Then consider $f(a+b+f(c))$. Using condition we get:
1) $f(a+b+f(c))=f(a)+f(b+f(c))=f(a)+f(b)+f(c)$
2) $f(a+b+f(c))=f(a+b)+f(c)$.
So $f(a+b)=f(a)+f(b)$. It's well-known Cauchy's functional equation. As we have integer numbers, $f(x)=kx$ (k is an arbitrary nonngative number).
As $f(f(n))=f(n)$, $k^2n=kn$, so $k=0$ or $k=1$. So the only solvings are $f(x)=x$ and $f(x)=0$
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/140813}{MBGO}]
you can only apply Cauchy's function if and only if f is continouse.
so you're not done.
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/31919}{tenniskidperson3}]
\begin{tcolorbox}you can only apply Cauchy's function if and only if f is continouse.
so you're not done.\end{tcolorbox}
Actually, here it's ok because it's on the integers. But you're right, McItran is not done. His issue is here:
\begin{tcolorbox}1) $f(a+b+f(c))=f(a)+f(b+f(c))$\end{tcolorbox}
You cannot just take $a$ outside into its own function. You need justification for that, and since you have none, you are wrong. You can also check that you are wrong because $f(x)=x$ if $x$ is even and $f(x)=x-1$ if $x$ is odd also works.
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/140813}{MBGO}]
@tenniskidperson3 : would you please check the end part of my solution? where i get in the last line : "f(i)=sp"?
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/173255}{soundouss}]
i think i have a pretty idea why don't we generalize the exercise to be more free with it thing like working in R
in fact it will be more easy to deal with the equation
if we prove that f(1)=1 we re done
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/31919}{tenniskidperson3}]
\begin{tcolorbox}we will get f(kp+i)=kp +i\end{tcolorbox}
False, we will get $f(kp+i)=kp+f(i)$.
\begin{tcolorbox}we get f(i)=sp+j ,0<j<p\end{tcolorbox}
False again, we can have $j=0$.
\begin{tcolorbox}so f(j)=j, contradiction with minimality\end{tcolorbox}
... unless $j=0$ for all integers.
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/140813}{MBGO}]
first one was just a typo,EDITED, second one i just devide the solution in two cases,the case where 0<j and j=0...i the only thing i doubt on it is when f(i)=sp,where i<p
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/31919}{tenniskidperson3}]
OK, I didn't understand what you were writing. It looks OK to me now.
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/105268}{McItran}]
\begin{tcolorbox}[quote="MBGO"]you can only apply Cauchy's function if and only if f is continouse.
so you're not done.\end{tcolorbox}
Actually, here it's ok because it's on the integers. But you're right, McItran is not done. His issue is here:
\begin{tcolorbox}1) $f(a+b+f(c))=f(a)+f(b+f(c))$\end{tcolorbox}
You cannot just take $a$ outside into its own function. You need justification for that, and since you have none, you are wrong. You can also check that you are wrong because $f(x)=x$ if $x$ is even and $f(x)=x-1$ if $x$ is odd also works.\end{tcolorbox}
Oh, I'm sorry :blush:
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/148207}{Particle}]
[hide="Solution"]Suppose $P(m,n)\implies f(m+f(n))=f(f(m))+f(n)$
$P(0,0)\implies f(0)=0$ and $P(m,0)\implies f(m)=f(f(m))$. So the original equation turns into $f(m+f(n))=f(m)+f(n)$. From now we define this new equation to be $P(x,y)$.
$P(f(m),m)\implies f(2f(m))=2f(m)$ and by induction $f(nf(m))=nf(m)\forall n\in \mathbb N_0\quad (1)$. Suppose $a$ is the gcd of the all elements in the image of $f$. Now pick $c,d$ such that $\gcd (f(c),f(d))=a$. Now the diophantine equation $f(c)x-f(d)y=a$ has solution in positive integers. So using (1) we get, $P(xf(c)-yf(d),yf(d))\implies f(xf(c))=f(a)+f(yf(d))\implies f(a)=a$.
Now we can write the general solution: since $a|f(i)$, so define $f(i)=ac_i$ for $1\leq i<a$, $c_i\in \mathbb N_0$, $f(a)=a$ and for $i=ak+b>a$, define $f(i)=ak+f(b)$ with $b<a$. Very easy to prove this function works. (Can be done as other people did in the previous posts.) [\/hide]
[hide="Comment:"]I too fell for $f(n)=n$. After proving $f(a)=a$ I tried too desperately to prove $f(1)=1$, but was in vain. Finally I understood even if $f(1)=0$, we still get functions satisfying the equation. After that, boom! I killed it :D[\/hide]
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/183149}{JuanOrtiz}]
Let $\Omega = \text{Im} (f) $. Throughout my solution, $a,b$ will denote elements of this set.
Notice that $f(m+a)=f(f(m))+a$, this is the statement. Then $f(a+b)=f(a)+b=f(b)+a$ and therefore $f(a)-a$ is constant $\forall a \in \Omega$. Also $a+c=f(a)=f(0+a)=f(f(0))+a=f(0)+a+c$ and so $f(0)=0$. Then if $a=0, c=0$ and so $f(a)=a \forall a \in \Omega$. Notice also $f(m+a)=f(m)+a$.
Notice that if $a,b \in \Omega$ then $f(a+b)=a+b$ so $\Omega$ is additive and if $b > a$ then $b=f(b)=f((b-a)+a)=f(b-a)+a$ then $\Omega$ is "subtractive". We obtain that $\Omega=\{0\}$ or the set of multiples of a positive integer $d$. In the first case, $f=0$ doesn't work. In the other case, we obtain $f(m+kd)=f(m)+kd$ and so the solution is:
Let $d$ be any positive integer and choose any $a_1,...,a_{d-1} \in \mathbb{N}_0$. Then $f(kd+i) = kd+a_i$ for $k \in \mathbb{N}_0$ and $1 \le i \le d-1$ and $f(kd)=kd$.
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/80125}{pi37}]
Let $g$ be an arbitrary positive integer and let $a_1,a_2,\cdots a_{g-1}$ be an arbitrary sequence of nonnegative integers, with $a_0=0$. Any solution in the form
\[
f(pg+r)=pg+a_r
\]
for $0\le r<g$ can easily be shown to be valid. Now we show that any possible function is in this form. Indeed, $P(0,0)$ implies $f(0)=0$, and $P(0,n)$ implies $f(f(n))=f(n)$. Then
\[
f(m+f(n))=f(m)+f(n)
\]
so $f$ is periodic modulo any integer in its range. Let $g>0$ be the gcd of the range of $f$ (noting that the solution $f(x)=0$ identically has been accounted for in the solution set, and so we may assume otherwise). Then some linear combination of elements of the range of $f$ form any multiple of $g$, so in particular
\[
f(m+kg)=f(m)+kg
\]
for any $m,k$. This implies that $f$ is in the above form.
\end{solution}
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\begin{problem}[Posted by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/6099}{keira_khtn}]
A function f is called \begin{bolded}Darboux\end{bolded} if X is an interval implying f(X) is also an interval.
Find all Darboux funtion f s.t.:
$f(x+y)=f(x+f(y))$
\flushright \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/c6h61817}{(Link to AoPS)}
\end{problem}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/29428}{pco}]
\begin{tcolorbox}A function f is called \begin{bolded}Darboux\end{bolded} if X is an interval implying f(X) is also an interval.
Find all Darboux funtion f s.t.:
$f(x+y)=f(x+f(y))$\end{tcolorbox}
Let $P(x,y)$ be the assertion $f(x+y)=f(x+f(y))$
Let $A=\{f(x)-x$ $\forall x\in\mathbb R\}$
Notation : in the following, the notation $|u,v|$ indicates an interval $(u,v)$ or $[u,v)$ or $(u,v]$ or $[u,v]$ (where $u,v$ may be numbers or $\pm \infty$)
1) $A$ is an additive subgroup of $\mathbb R$
=======================
$A$ is not empty.
$P(x-y,y)$ $\implies$ $f(x)=f(x-y+f(y))$ $\implies$ $(f(x)-x)-(fy)-y)$ $=f(x-y+f(y))-(x-y+f(y))$
So $a,b\in A$ $\implies$ $a-b\in A$
So $a-a=0\in A$
So $0-b=-b\in A$
So $a-(-b)=a+b\in A$
Q.E.D.
2) If $A=\{0\}$, then $f(x)=x$ $\forall x$
========================
This is just the definition of $A$ and $f(x)=x$ $\forall x$ is indeed a solution.
Q.E.D.
3) If $A\ne \{0\}$ is dense in $\mathbb R$, then $f(x)=c$ constant
======================================
$f(\mathbb R)$ is an interval since $f(x)$ is Darboux.
If this interval contains two distinct numbers $a<b$, then it contains $[a,b]$
$P(0,x)$ $\implies$ $f(f(x))=f(x)$ and so $f(x)=x$ $\forall x\in[a,b]$
Since $A$ is dense in $\mathbb R$, let then $u$ such that $0<f(u)-u<b-a$
$a\in[a,b]$ and so $f(a)=a$
$a+f(u)-u\in[a,b]$ and so $f(a+f(u)-u)=a+f(u)-u\ne f(a)$
But $P(a-u,u)$ $\implies$ $f(a)=f(a+f(u)-u)$ and so contradiction.
So no such distinct $a,b$ exist and $f(\mathbb R)=\{c\}$ which indeed is a solution.
Q.E.D.
4) If $A\ne\{0\}$ is not dense in $\mathbb R$, then no solution
===================================
If $A\ne \{0\}$ and not dense in $\mathbb R$, then $\exists \Delta>0$ such that $A=\Delta\mathbb Z$ (remember that $A$ is an additive subgroup of $\mathbb R$)
$\Delta\in A$ $\implies$ $\exists t$ such that $f(t)-t=\Delta$ and then $P(x-t,t)$ $\implies$ $f(x)=f(x+\Delta)$ $\forall x$
Let $f(\mathbb R)=|u,v|$
$P(0,x)$ $\implies$ $f(f(x))=f(x)$ and so $f(x)=x$ $\forall x\in|u,v|$
If $v-u>\Delta$, then :
$\exists a\in|u,v|$ such that$ a+\Delta\in|u,v|$ too
$a\in|u,v|$ $\implies$ $f(a)=a$
$a+\Delta\in|u,v|$ $\implies$ $f(a+\Delta)=a+\Delta$
But $f(a)=f(a+\Delta)$
and so contradiction.
So $v-u \le \Delta$
If $v-u<\Delta$, let $x\in(v,u+\Delta)$
$f(x)\in|u,v|$ and so $f(x)-x\in (0,-\Delta)$ which is impossible since $f(x)-x\in A=\Delta\mathbb Z$
So $v-u=\Delta$
But then $f\left(\left[u+\frac{2\Delta}3,u+\frac{4\Delta}3\right]\right)$ $=\left[u+\frac{2\Delta}3,u+\Delta\right)$ $\cup\{f(u+\Delta)\}$ $\cup\left(u,u+\frac{\Delta}3\right)$ is not an interval
And so no solution.
Q.E.D
5) Synthesis of solutions
=================
The only solutions are :
$f(x)=x$ $\forall x$
$f(x)=c$ $\forall x$ and for any $c\in\mathbb R$
\end{solution}
*******************************************************************************
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\begin{problem}[Posted by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/6912}{chess64}]
Let $f$ be a function with the following properties:
1) $f(n)$ is defined for every positive integer $n$;
2) $f(n)$ is an integer;
3) $f(2)=2$;
4) $f(mn)=f(m)f(n)$ for all $m$ and $n$;
5) $f(m)>f(n)$ whenever $m>n$.
Prove that $f(n)=n$.
\flushright \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/c6h87616}{(Link to AoPS)}
\end{problem}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/5787}{ZetaX}]
http://www.mathlinks.ro/Forum/viewtopic.php?t=55870 pwns it ;)
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/6912}{chess64}]
Is it just me or does Kalva's solution (http://www.kalva.demon.co.uk\/canada\/casoln\/csol698.html) not make sense...
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/16858}{rjt}]
\begin{tcolorbox}Is it just me or does Kalva's solution (http://www.kalva.demon.co.uk\/canada\/casoln\/csol698.html) not make sense...\end{tcolorbox}
Seems to make sense to me (maybe I'm missing something though).
My solution:
[hide]
It's easily shown that $f(1)=1$ and $f(4)=4$.
$f(2)<f(3)<f(4)$
$2 < f(3) < 4$. Implies $f(3) = 3$
Now, let us assume that it is true for all $f(k)$ where $k\leq 2n$
$f(2n+2)=f(2(n+1))=f(2)f(n+1)=2n+2$
$f(2n)<f(2n+1)<f(2n+2)$
$2n<f(2n+1)<2n+2$
Hence, $f(2n+1)=2n+1$, and by induction $f(n) = n$
[\/hide]
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/6912}{chess64}]
Nice solution.
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/38022}{NapoleonXIV}]
Clearly function is multiplicative.
Function is specifically defined if we know values for $ p^k$ where $ p$ is a prime, and
$ k\in N$
We know that for every $ n$ $ f(2^n)=f(2)*f(2{}^n{}^-{}^1)=f(2)*f(2)*f(2{}^n{}^-{}^2)=...=f^n(2)=2^n$
Does that mean that for every $ n$ $ f(n)=n$?
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/14052}{t0rajir0u}]
\begin{tcolorbox}Function is specifically defined if we know values for $ p^k$ where $ p$ is a prime\end{tcolorbox}
We can do better; a \begin{italicized}completely\end{italicized} multiplicative function (such as the one given) from the positive integers is defined by its values at the primes. But note that for an odd prime $ p$ we have
$ f(p - 1) < f(p) < f(p + 1)$
and if we have shown (inductively) that $ f(q) = q$ for $ q$ a prime less than $ p$ then the fact that $ p - 1, p + 1$ are both composite allows us to conclude. This is essentially rjt's solution.
Edit: \begin{bolded}Follow-up:\end{bolded} Is the condition that $ f(2) = 2$ necessary? What if we only have $ f(2) \neq 0$?
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/126756}{panamath}]
For any $n$, $f(2^{n}) = 2^{n}$... we have that between two powers of two the numbers are in order so are the $f's$ because $ f(m)>f(n) $ if $ m>n $ a simple strong induction will do it. We can also use that the groups {${2^{n-1} +1, ... , 2^{n} - 1}$} and {$f({2^{n-1} +1), ... , f(2^{n} - 1})$} are between the same numbers and in the same order, this fact plus the fact that they are all integers may be a complete solution, really don't know.
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/109704}{dien9c}]
We have the stronger problem
Find all $f: \mathbb{N} \to \mathbb{N}$ such that
1. $f(2)=2$
2. $f(mn)=f(m)f(n)$ if $\gcd(m,n)=1$
3. $f$ is increasing
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/140796}{mathbuzz}]
[color=#FF0000]solution to the original problem, NOT THE STRONGER ONE[\/color]------f(2.1)=f(2).f(1) , so , 2=2f(1) , so f(1)=1
now we use strong form induction
let P(n): f(n)=n.
let P(1) ,....,P(k) be true { base cases have already been checked}
f(k.k)=[f(k)]^2 , i.e. , f(k^2)=k^2 also f(k)=k
as per the problem condition , f(k)<f(k+1)<.....f(k^2-1)<f(k^2)
so , clearly , f(k+1)=k+1 , ......., f(k^2-1)=k^2-1 must hold
now our induction is complete. :D
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/29428}{pco}]
\begin{tcolorbox}... f(k.k)=[f(k)]^2 ...\end{tcolorbox}
Unfortunately, property 2. is only valid when $\gcd(m,n)=1$ and so you cant use it for $m=n=k>1$
\end{solution}
\begin{solution}[by \href{https://artofproblemsolving.com/community/user/140796}{mathbuzz}]